Question:
Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Show that f has unique inverse.

(Hint: suppose g1 and g2 are two inverses of f. Then for all y ∈ Y, fog1(y) = 1Y(y) = fog2(y). Use one-one ness of f).

Answer:

Let f: X → Y be an invertible function.

Also, suppose f has two inverses (say g₁ and g₂).

Then, for all y ∈Y, we have:

Hence, f has a unique inverse.

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Answered by Ekta Mehta
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Question:
Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Show that f has unique inverse.

(Hint: suppose g1 and g2 are two inverses of f. Then for all y ∈ Y, fog1(y) = 1Y(y) = fog2(y). Use one-one ness of f).

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Question: Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Show that f has unique inverse. (Hint: suppose g1 and g2 are two inverses of f. Then for all y ∈ Y, fog1(y) = 1Y(y) = fog2(y). Use one-one ness of f).

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Question:
Let f : X → Y be an invertible function. Show that f has unique inverse.

(Hint: suppose g1 and g2 are two inverses of f. Then for all y ∈ Y, fog1(y) = 1Y(y) = fog2(y). Use one-one ness of f).